Amortised cost required the same estimation of future cash flows as a dcf used to derive fair value. Any resulting changes in those cash flows are taken as a gain/loss in amortised cost as they are in FV. Theoretically discount rate and optionality surrounding secondary sales in a FV model are the principal differences. Given most the volatility comes from changes in cash flow estimates (not changes in discount rates - assume cash flows risked and thus not adjusted through discount factor ) there isn't much difference between the two. There is a big misconception as to what amortised cost entails for such assets. It doesn't mean you set an amortisation profile and forget it regardless of how your original cash flow estimates ( used to determine original effective interest rate) change subsequent to purchase.....
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Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
61.0¢ | 61.0¢ | 60.0¢ | $18.15K | 30K |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
2 | 29931 | 59.0¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
62.0¢ | 17187 | 2 |
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No. | Vol. | Price($) |
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1 | 62500 | 0.480 |
1 | 36200 | 0.470 |
1 | 1816 | 0.465 |
1 | 20000 | 0.460 |
1 | 10000 | 0.455 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
0.490 | 47333 | 1 |
0.500 | 3000 | 1 |
0.505 | 432 | 1 |
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0.520 | 904 | 1 |
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