Hi,
Not accurate Greenhart, but I think I know what you are trying to get across.
Actually not that much correlation .
The problem here is conflating the gender of victims/offenders with their sexual orientation, not helped by a sloppy use of terminology in discussions re paedophilia, sexual abuse of children, sex abuse of post pubertal children.
The following link from the University of California a pretty good , but long winded article that tries to get it all straight[if you will excuse the pun].
http://psychology.ucdavis.edu/rainbow/html/facts_molestation.html
Basically, the answer to the question in the thread heading, is no.