So correct me if I'm wrong but from what I understand from the announcements, now we have a court order that we can't 'monetise' unless the chargee bank forecloses. the company should find out whether the chargee bank intends to do that but if the defendant has been faithfully paying his bank installments, there is no reason for the bank to foreclose. and how much is owed to the bank? Obviously the bank has first dibs so may not even have much left over!
no wonder the market is abscribing $0 to the court action.
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