But surely the fact they collect a higher amount has no bearing on the method used but results in a lower discount rate being used by that method?
I've just looked at the standard & the differentiation between the methods described only differs in respect that under fair value it is appropriate if the asset is also held for resale. I'm not sure I've ever read in the last 2 years of an instance where PNC sells the PCPs it holds?
4.1.2 A financial asset shall be measured at amortised cost if both of the following conditions are met (a) the financial asset is held within a business model whose objective is to hold financial assets in order to collect contractual cash flows and(b) the contractual terms of the financial asset give rise on specified dates to cash flows that are solely payments of principal and interest on the principal amount outstanding
4.1.2A A financial asset shall be measured at fair value through other comprehensive income if both of the following conditions are met (a) the financial asset is held within a business model whose objective is achieved by both collecting contractual cash flows and selling financial assets and(b) the contractual terms of the financial asset give rise on specified dates to cash flows that are solely payments of principal and interest on the principal amount outstanding.
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