On a completely different bio forum we've recently been discussing whether drugs have to go through the full PhI-II-III process to get to market, and one example that came up was this:
http://www.cancertherapyadvisor.com...ilzomib-combination-treatment/article/466936/
I have to read the background and come to grips with the whole story, but am interested in other posters thoughts as we move towards Ph II. (credit to HC user DiamondJoe who provided the link with some background).
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