Assets reflect "fair market values" which in the ordinary course of events are normally considered independent, arms length transactions.
However with 55% or more of the assets under long term leases, how can they be valued at "fair market values" if they are restricted by encumbered leases?
I have contacted the company but it appears they are unwilling to disclose whether or not any allowance has been made.
Concerning! Overly inflated values?
Welcome thoughts.
DYOR
Ann: Monthly Update - May 2018, page-2
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