In the above announcement in section 3, the ROIC on Bentham IMF (USA) and Fund 1 is 0.84x
It then gives a definition below that of ROIC.
How should the 0.84X be interpreted? Is that a profit at 84% or does it mean the return is less than the total outlays ie 0.84/1.00.
In the above announcement in section 3, the ROIC on Bentham IMF...
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