I guess the key point MB are arguing is that interest was being paid on the brokerage fee, pretty sure that's how it works with personal loans and homeloans though is it not?Interesting, deceptive conduct is hardly class-action worthy and doesn't change the legal point they were arguing originally from my understanding.
Nothing wrong with a brokerage fee in any way shape or form but it does seem dubious when it makes up so much of the loan balance.
So IF CCV win what ramifications would this have?
MB would have to cover legals as a minimum, possible to sue for reputation damage?
Ps: still think no matter the actual law behind it CCV will lose, just want this farce out of the way and a guidance issued post all this crap.
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