Can someone who knows more about this than I please explain to me why it was ok for a director to sell shares on market 2 weeks prior to him being gifted this bunch of shares (sold at 4c ish and gifted at 2c). It seems like a croc to say that he needed the cash (as someone said). Did he know that the gifting was going to occur. Is that information not in the public domain.
If I'm barking up the wrong tree being concerned about this then please let me know.
Can someone who knows more about this than I please explain to...
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