If the trial involved the use of standard care plus VG-0001 (and plus placebo), rather than deducing that VG-001 performed no better than standard care, would not the more plausible deduction be that it had no effect at all?
How does the Board reconcile this with many previous statements to shareholders that VG001 was derisked and was proven to be effective?
why after many many years of research by QUT (at shareholder expense) was not QUT able to discern that VG001 had no effect whatsoever?