After down 8%, P/E still 28, too expensive, page-11

Is the FX $4.4m ($2.1m from GBP) reduction in income 'real' money or just an accounting calculation?

Let's say Hansen has businesses in Australia, US and UK. For a six-month period ending 31/12/16:
Australia: Revenue=10AUD, Expenses (wages etc)=7AUD, Earnings=3AUD
US: Revenue=10US, Expenses (wages etc)=7US, Earnings=3US
UK: Revenue=10GBP, Expenses (wages etc)=7GBP, Earnings=3GBP

Hansen reports in AUD.

For the period:
*revenue is 10AUD + 10US (converted to AUD at 31/12/16?) + 10GBP (converted to AUD at 31/12/16?)
*earnings are 10AUD + 10US (converted to AUD at 31/12/16?) + 10GBP (converted to AUD at 31/12/16?)

The AUD consolidated accounts determine revenue, earnings, tax, dividends etc for the period?

But assuming Hansen has enough cash in Australia in AUD to pay tax and dividends, doesn't this mean that the US business still has 3US in its US bank account and the UK business still has 3GBP its UK bank account? That is, neither business has crystallized an FX loss.

And presumably, PPL was bought using the US bank account and HiAffinity was bought using the UK bank account?

My second question! In the latest Financial Report (p7) there is an item for 'Exchange differences on translation of foreign operations' ... what does that mean?
1H13 0.820m
1H14 6.156m
1H15 2.795m
1H16 1.573m

Hoping someone can assist!