Biota paid a heap of their shares to another party to purchase the right to something they could have just used for free and now they suddenly want those shares back?
Wouldn't DD indicate the ownership of something they wanted to buy? It would be very interesting to know in what way ownership was claimed. Stat Dec, over a coffee or what?
Something does not fit. If Solagram promised an inducement to sign off on the deal and subsequently backed away knowing it couldn't be enforced, that could be an explaination. I would very much like to think that there is some other more obvious legal scenario.
I'm not suggesting it actually happened like that, but could someone please offer any other reasonable or unreasonable possibilities?
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