Dumb question (maybe), but I am confused.
GBP has an english entity and is seperate to GBP Australia, with its own financials and shares on issue etc, & it trades on the LSE.
Q: Which one is funding the drill or what percentage and how will any future profits be split?
Could one assume the cost of the drill would be shared between the two - if so the (market cap minus cost of drilling Iti 1) divided by number of shares would be more attractive, as any loos is diluted betwen the two?
Is there anyone who can enlighten me as I am a newbie to shares anyway........ and this one has me stumped
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