OK i get that but they would initially increase the value of the asset on purchasing it under fair value where as under amortised cost they wouldn't?
Assuming no cashflows occurred between purchase & the end of the accounting period.
It's the initial recognition of the increased value that concerns me as opposed to the changes in cash flow estimates from year to year.
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Last
62.0¢ |
Change
-0.010(1.59%) |
Mkt cap ! $73.69M |
Open | High | Low | Value | Volume |
61.0¢ | 62.0¢ | 60.0¢ | $88.02K | 144.0K |
Buyers (Bids)
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
2 | 8955 | 61.0¢ |
Sellers (Offers)
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
62.0¢ | 5783 | 2 |
View Market Depth
No. | Vol. | Price($) |
---|---|---|
1 | 62500 | 0.480 |
1 | 36200 | 0.470 |
1 | 1816 | 0.465 |
1 | 20000 | 0.460 |
1 | 10000 | 0.455 |
Price($) | Vol. | No. |
---|---|---|
0.490 | 47333 | 1 |
0.500 | 3000 | 1 |
0.505 | 432 | 1 |
0.510 | 85615 | 2 |
0.520 | 904 | 1 |
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