I find it hard to understand why an option holder would not have sold the equivalent number of shares,
waited two days for settlement and then sent a cheque to the company and taken up the options at 2 cents.
It did not involve any further outlay of "hard earned cash"
You may have banked a few sheckles if you timed it right.
And it would have helped the company in which you invested.
Is it the dilution that bothers folks?
Maybe I'm missing something here?
Big Test approaching, page-6
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